My question is if in order to have a national park you must acquire 90 percent of the private lands and if almost two-thirds of the private lands are owned by one corporation, could not that corporation by withholding its consent to sell, keeping in mind there is no eminent domain authority here, by refusing the consent to sell would they not then have a veto over the whole National Park System designation?
Questioning the implications of private land ownership on national park designations.
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