I do not see an inconsistency between willful blindness and a fleshing out of that. Was he aware of a high probability that a contribution originated from a foreign national? I do not see any inconsistency in that standard. It supports and, further, I think enhances the language of willful blindness. There may be a case to what court precedent does it refer to, what standard and what definition, but I do think that the high probability supports the intent.
Editor's note · Context
Discussing the legal standards related to willful blindness and foreign contributions.
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