All this was done in the name of the Nabob; but if the Nabob is the person claiming his father's effects, if the Nabob is the person vindicating a rebellion against himself upon his nearest relations, why did he not in person take a single step in this matter? why do we see nothing but his abused name in it?
Edmund Burke: “All this was done in the name of the Nabob; but if the Nabob is the person claiming his father's effects, if the Nabob…”
Editor's note · Context
Burke questions the legitimacy of the Nabob's actions regarding his father's estate and the rebellion against his relatives.
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A state without the means of some change is without the means of its conservation.
The speculative line of demarcation, where obedience ought to end and resistance must begin, is faint, obscure, and not easily definable.
The House of Lords, for instance, is not morally competent to dissolve the House of Commons,--no, nor even to dissolve itself, nor to abdicate, if it would, its portion in the legislature of the kingdom.
Who could flatter himself that these men, suddenly, and as it were by enchantment, snatched from the humblest rank of subordination, would not be intoxicated with their unprepared greatness?





