On the recordJuly 18, 1996
Which I guess leads to the point I wanted to ask about, which is that if you are essentially using the logic of this bill for the post-5-year period, why not use it for the pre-5-year period also? Or to state it another way, you said in your statement that it made no sense to you that people wanted to give flexibility to the States; they would not allow the States that flexibility after a 5-year period to spend the voucher. Doesn't that same logic apply to the pre-5-year period? In other words, shouldn't the State flexibility remain for the pre-5-year period as well as for the post-5-year period? Why should the Federal Government come in and direct the States to do it?
Said by
Judd Gregg
Source
govinfo.gov