Isn't it true that under this basic law and also this amendment, benefits only accrue prospectively; that is, no benefits accrue retroactively? That is, the only retroactive application is as to whether somebody qualifies, but the actual benefits only accrue prospectively. So it is not accurate to say there is a lump sum that is paid to a worker because of past employment.
Discussing the implications of a law regarding benefits during a Senate debate.
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