I simply want to clarify the intent of the amendment and the language of the amendment, which says the funds simply would not be automatically spent under those conditions. If the Congress wanted to go ahead and make the appropriations to spend them, then that could occur. It does not prevent them from ever being spent; it simply says they are not spent as an entitlement.
Clarifying the intent and language of an amendment regarding fund appropriations.
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No, we don't force people to do that. I guess we do say that if you want to drive in some places, you have to buy auto insurance to insure against damage to somebody else. Right?
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Because of one word difference? One word difference. The Senate has already passed the Senate bill, the House has to pass that exact bill word for word. It can't have one word missing?
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