I think that means the answer is yes.
Give me a period of time and tell me how many loans were----
Is there any limit under the current regulations to what percentage could be attributed to an offshore wholly owned corporation?
And the IRS should aggressively require that.
Is that what you mean by sequence?
What is the justification for that except to save tax money? And that is perfectly legitimate, right?
So the treasury decided within each fund how much and when?
How many days were there loans outstanding?
Is the reason it is located in Bermuda to reduce taxes?
The IRS has broad authority in other respects under Section 482 with respect to companies under common control.
Could you sell from the United States without those kind of cost-sharing agreements with yourself?